jkdood
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- Joined
- Sep 25, 2018
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I read the Georgia code and lots of commentary on lawful use of deadly force (by cops or others) and cannot find or understand:
(Just to make it extra clear, assume) A cop sees a perp fire a gun at a citizen who falls and dies (or appears seriously wounded.) The cop draws his own gun and yells drop it, which the Perp does. The perp is searched no weapons or stuff, and is about to be handcuffed when he slips away and runs down the street. I thought because he had committed such a serious felony the cop, by Georgia Law, could shoot him if he has no other way to stop him in the chase. But I don't see such an "allowance" or exception. Anyone know the actual legal eagle literal view of this?
(EDIT: PS, I know this is different than the case that just went down; just interested in what the law says about this sort of extreme example.)
(Just to make it extra clear, assume) A cop sees a perp fire a gun at a citizen who falls and dies (or appears seriously wounded.) The cop draws his own gun and yells drop it, which the Perp does. The perp is searched no weapons or stuff, and is about to be handcuffed when he slips away and runs down the street. I thought because he had committed such a serious felony the cop, by Georgia Law, could shoot him if he has no other way to stop him in the chase. But I don't see such an "allowance" or exception. Anyone know the actual legal eagle literal view of this?
(EDIT: PS, I know this is different than the case that just went down; just interested in what the law says about this sort of extreme example.)